by Stuart Armstrong 579 days ago | link | parent The way I’m using the term, unbiased influence involves replacing the stochastic event with another one that has same mean. But since (or if) the quantum event is specifically defined in the process, this can’t be done.

 by Jessica Taylor 578 days ago | link Let me ask a more specific question. In your setup with the quantum event $$Q$$ and the button $$B$$, can you define the event $$E$$ such that: The agent can influence $$E$$ by biasing $$E$$. The agent can’t influence $$E$$ without biasing $$E$$. Clearly, $$E \neq Q$$ and $$E \neq B$$, so I don’t know what $$E$$ is. (I interpreted you as saying there is such an $$E$$; let me know if this is incorrect) reply
 by Stuart Armstrong 572 days ago | link You are correct and I’m wrong. The causal counterfactual is unbiased and uninfluenceable. The evidential counterfactual is both biased and influenceable. I’ll correct the post. reply

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